Perhaps you are selectively reading (again). Directly below that excerpt, she writes: "Unsurprisingly, a social system of uneven moral entitlements -- where men are deemed entitled to more than women, all else equal -- sometimes has psychological ramifications, as in when people pick up on this system, and think that men are in fact entitled to more, or women to less."

I'll accept her clarification of what she means, but the point remains that there's been no demonstration made for why this should be an incompatible purpose. It's as if the mere application of a concept to varying purposes is being taken as evidence of incompatibility.